1.In the classic type of pedophilic disorder, those MOST at risk are:
a. boys of any age.
b. postpubescent.
c. prepubescent.
d. in early puberty.
2. A recent study showed that the majority of women in sexually healthy, positive marriages report that ________ is the MOST satisfying component of sexual activity with their partner.
a. desire
b. foreplay
c. resolution
d. orgasm
3. An antiandrogen would be MOST appropriate if a paraphiliac disorder is caused by:
a. a hormonal imbalance that occurred during the prenatal period.
b. too much estrogen in the body.
c. a deficiency in the production of testosterone.
d. an inappropriate sex drive.
4. An otherwise healthy man reports almost no interest in sexual activity and has had very few sexual experiences in the past several years. That person MOST likely is experiencing:
a. sexual aversion.
b. sexual repulsion.
c. hypoactive sexual desire.
d. paraphilia.
5. From a psychological perspective, early ejaculation is usually the result of:
a. sexual aversion.
b. organic problems.
c. sexual impotence.
d. sexual inexperience.
6. A healthy man is likely to have two to five REM periods each night and several penile erections during that time. If he is not experiencing this, he MOST likely has:
a. nocturnal penile tumescence.
b. performance anxiety.
c. a normal response.
d. a biologically based erectile dysfunction.
7. If one were looking for a biological cause of an erectile disorder, one would MOST productively look for a:
a. neurological problem.
b. renal problem.
c. reproductive problem.
d. vascular problem.
8. According to Masters and Johnson, the resolution phase is more gradual and less sudden in women when:
a. they do not experience orgasm.
b. they do not experience arousal.
c. they have experienced multiple orgasms.
d. they experience a sexual aversion.
9. If someone had a sexual dysfunction, we know that this person would NOT be having difficulty in which of the following phases of the sexual response cycle?
a. desire
b. orgasm
c. excitement
d. resolution
10. Of the following men, which would MOST likely be treated with masturbatory satiation?
a. premature ejaculation.
b. a fetish.
c. erectile dysfunction.
d. transvestism.
11. Which of the following theoretical orientations is MOST helpful in understanding the origin of gender identity disorder?
a. family systems
b. biological
c. cognitive
d. sociocultural
12. Some individuals experience a normal interest in sex but choose, as a matter of lifestyle, not to engage in sexual relations. Such people would be diagnosed with:
a. sexual aversion.
b. no sexual dysfunction.
c. failure of the sexual response cycle.
d. hypoactive sexual desire.
13. If someone experiencing female orgasmic disorder asks you what is the MOST effective treatment, you should say:
a. “Practice the start-stop technique.”
b. “Learn to masturbate.”
c. “Take SSRIs.”
d. “Use graduated vaginal cylinders.”
14. The following are all examples of sociocultural causes of hypoactive sexual disorder EXCEPT:
a. having a partner lacking in sexual skills.
b. infertility problems.
c. pain medication.
d. loss of a job.
15. Research shows that sexual dysfunctions among homosexual couples:
a. include two distinct categories not included among heterosexual dysfunctions.
b. are virtually nonexistent.
c. are the same as those seen in heterosexual couples.
d. generally are more severe than among heterosexual couples.
16. A man derives sexual arousal exclusively from dressing in women’s clothing. MOST likely, that person would be diagnosed as:
a. having gender dysphoria.
b. having transvestic disorder.
c. an exhibitionist.
d. normal and healthy.
17. A sexual dysfunction differs from a paraphilia in that it:
a. is more likely to be caused by sociocultural factors than are paraphilias.
b. is more likely diagnosed in men; paraphilias are more common in women.
c. is socially unacceptable, while a paraphilia is not.
d. involves some difficulty with the sexual response cycle.
18. Which of the following is a sociocultural cause for male erectile disorder?
a. performance anxiety
b. diabetes
c. mild depression
d. loss of a job
19. A man being treated for a fetish to women’s hats first obtains an erection from looking at women’s hats, then begins to masturbate while looking at a picture of a nude woman. At the moment of orgasm, he makes sure to be looking at the picture of the nude woman. The behavioral approach being used is:
a. orgasmic reorientation.
b. masturbatory satiation.
c. relapse-prevention training.
d. covert sensitization.
20. In a very crowded department store during the Christmas rush, a woman suddenly feels a stranger rubbing his genital area against her thigh. He continues until the crowd begins to break up, then moves away. The MOST likely diagnosis for this man is:
a. hypoxyphilia.
b. sexual masochism.
c. frotteurism.
d. pedophilia.
CHAPTER 13
21. Davis has been diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. What is the chief explanation for his desire to avoid other people and social situations?
a. paranoid feelings
b. distrust of others
c. fear of rejection
d. preference to be alone
22. A noted expert in her field, Dr. Gomez is presenting information to her colleagues about using the DSM-5 to diagnose personality disorders. She noted several problems challenges associated with using the DSM-5 to diagnosed PDs. These would include all EXCEPT:
a. the criteria are so restrictive that several categories rarely, if ever, are used.
b. sometimes the diagnostician must try to figure out why a person does something.
c. there is considerable overlap of symptoms across many categories.
d. people who act very differently may require the same diagnosis.
23. According to a large body of research with diverse populations, how many “supertraits,” or factors, may describe the basic structure of personality?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 3
d. 16
24. Gloria is frequently impulsive, experiences rapid changes in mood, has a self-image that can only be described as unstable, and has been treated for self-inflicted injury. Based on these behaviors, it is likely that she will be diagnosed with which of the following?
a. avoidant
b. borderline
c. narcissistic
d. obsessive-compulsive
25. Which of the following would MOST clearly fit into the biosocial theory of the development of borderline personality disorder?
a. an individual who has difficulty controlling internal emotions and parents who mislabel those emotions
b. an individual who has deficits in the functioning of both the amygdala and the prefrontal cortex
c. an individual who has family members who display many of the symptoms of borderline personality disorder
d. an individual who engages in self-injurious behavior while under the influence of illegal substances
26. In social situations, Doyle feels quite uncomfortable, is highly sensitive to any perceived negative evaluations, and experiences an overwhelming sense of inadequacy. Based on these symptoms, his therapist has diagnosed Doyle with ___________ personality disorder.
a. socially phobic
b. antisocial
c. avoidant
d. schizoid
27. Personality disorders typically become recognizable in:
a. middle childhood.
b. middle age.
c. early childhood.
d. adolescence or early adulthood.
28. A psychologist believes that a patient’s paranoid personality disorder was the result of his mother and father’s over-demanding parenting style when he was a child. This psychologist MOST likely embraces which of the following theoretical models?
a. psychodynamic
b. sociocultural
c. behavioral
d. cognitive
29. People with __________ personality disorder often are so afraid of rejection that they are overly sensitive to disapproval and keep trying to meet other people’s wishes and expectations, even if it means volunteering for unpleasant or demeaning tasks.
a. histrionic
b. passive-aggressive
c. dependent
d. avoidant
30. Based on his unrelenting need for admiration, seeming inability to feel empathy, and overtly grandiose behaviors, Don has been MOST likely diagnosed with which of the following personality disorders?
a. histrionic
b. antisocial
c. paranoid
d. narcissistic
31. People diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder typically experience less anxiety than the average person. Which of the following is NOT a theory that might explain this?
a. slow EEG waves
b. slow autonomic arousal
c. low brain and bodily arousal
d. slow EKG waves
32. A diagnosis of borderline personality disorder is most similar to which other type of mental illness?
a. delusional disorder
b. somatoform disorders
c. mood disorders (i.e., depressive and bipolar)
d. attachment disorder
33. Which of the following treatment approaches is of limited help for sufferers of paranoid personality disorder?
a. behavioral therapy
b. cognitive therapy
c. object relationship therapy
d. drug therapy
34. One especially good reason Dr. Alvarez offers group therapy for her clients who have dependent personality disorder is because:
a. All of these alternatives are good reasons to use group therapy with those with dependent personality disorder.
b. the group members can model appropriate behaviors and expression of feelings to one another.
c. the therapist can still control the group, because the participants are so dependent.
d. the group members will see how maladaptive the dependent behavior is when they observe it in the other group members.
35. Ava has borderline personality disorder and was recently hospitalized. Given what you know about this type of personality disorder, what was the MOST likely reason?
a. She probably had a nervous breakdown and voluntarily admitted herself.
b. She may not have been able to care for her daily personal needs.
c. She was likely afraid of leaving her home because she suffered from social paralysis.
d. She may have attempted suicide or otherwise tried to hurt herself.
36. Which of the following personality disorders is most likely to be confused with narcissistic personality disorder?
a. dependent
b. obsessive-compulsive
c. schizoid
d. antisocial
37. Terry struggles with establishing and maintaining relationships. Those who are acquainted with him describe his behaviors as eccentric, and his thinking and interpretations as downright odd. Holding conversations with him is challenging, because he often digresses, and has difficulty maintaining focus. These symptoms are MOST associated with which personality disorder?
a. schizoaffective
b. schizoid
c. avoidant
d. schizotypal
38. ________ is NOT an area listed in the DSM 5 as required to be affected by a personality disorder?
a. interpersonal functioning
b. affectivity
c. cognition
d. intelligence
39. ______________________, which helps clients increase their ability to tolerate distress, learn new social skills, and respond more effectively to life situations, is considered the treatment of choice in many clinical circles for borderline personality disorder.
a. Psychodynamic therapy
b. Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
c. Dialectical behavioral therapy
d. Social modeling therapy
40. Chip tends to express himself in a flat unemotional tone, and is described by those who know him as a loner who is quite satisfied to be on his own. Which of the following personality disorders BEST fit Chip’s behaviors?
a. avoidant
b. schizotypal
c. obsessive-compulsive
d. schizoid
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